That is beacuse it could have been sold on auction or default and was bought
right back the same day by some one.. Check the tax records for this one.
----- Original Message -----
From: <sully(a)vnet.net>
To: <DEED-MAPPER-USERS-L(a)rootsweb.com>
Sent: Friday, July 23, 2004 5:02 PM
Subject: [DMU] Deeding property back and forth
KDBarnett(a)aol.com wrote:
>In a message dated 7/23/2004 7:33:34 AM Central Standard Time,
>FredRump(a)earthlink.net writes:
>PS I have another question. Does deeding a property back and forth
>make any sense to anyone. It seems that in 1950 my place was sold
>(deeded) and bought right back again on the same date and time.
>Doesn't make a bit of sense to me as to why anyone would do that.
>
>Fred, That is a very good question. I have the same situation in some of
my
>genealogical data. I am looking forward to the answer.
>
>Keith of East Texas
>
Sometimes this was done to provide a clear line of property title. For
example, when several people had owned the property jointly and conveyed
their shares separately in various deeds.
Kathy of Charlotte, NC
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